So, my whole life (since diagnosis) people have said that there is a high incidence of t1 diagnosis during the winter months because of association with flu virus.
They say that there is a known association that is not completely understood, but that flu often precedes T1 diagnosis and there is correlation between the two. Like, they think something in flu triggers T1.
Is this something that is widely known and accepted or am I coming out of left field?
Is that something that the rest of you hear commonly stated?
I ask because it colors my perception of covid. I think, “Sure, you get the flu, and then you wake up, and all your internal organs are destroyed - obvious - same old song and dance. Nothing weird about this covid-thing, its just like what happened to me.”
My whole life people have told me that I got the flu, and then simultaneously (and kinda as a result) got T1. That’s true, right?
I just want to consult the community because a bunch of Normals are telling me I’m crazy. I just thought that was something that was widely accepted. Am I off base?