I was diagnosed in 2016 and have terrible neuropathy. Rapidly progressing neuropathy, started in my legs and is now in my hands (didn’t even know that was a thing until a month or two ago). Since my first post-diagnosis bloodwork, I’ve not had an A1c over 5.8%, and my average over the last two years is 4.9%.
So let me ask you…why would you assume the fact you’ve had no neuropathies was related to your ability to control your diabetes with NPH? And why would you think that just because you could do that, everyone else could or should be able to? The difference between NPH and analog insulin is much greater than “a convenience” for most diabetics I know, most who post here on this board, and certainly in my doctor’s opinion.